Regarding the link you posted, let’s suppose that the new changes to voting procedure were, in fact, quietly aimed at affecting the electoral outcome. Unless there’s any race-specific language in them, is it not more reasonable to assume that they were targeting Democratic voters, instead of non-white voters?

Obviously, a higher percentage of blacks vote Democratic than whites do, but what if we were talking about a poorer, white-dominated community in the Midwest that largely votes Democratic? If Republicans there felt they needed to devise some underhanded method to sway elections in their favor, race would probably not be a consideration.

You might answer that literacy tests in the Jim Crow era weren’t technically race-specific either, and that’s true. In fact they kept many poor whites from voting as well. But we’re in a period where the culture regarding race relations is far different from that era and racism is now widely considered taboo. Supposing again that the changes to voting procedure were quietly meant to change electoral outcomes, race was probably not the first thing on the minds of those who supported the changes.